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	<title>Comments on: P-score in the reg?</title>
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		<title>By: George</title>
		<link>http://www.mostlyharmlesseconometrics.com/2010/03/p-score-in-the-reg/comment-page-1/#comment-128</link>
		<dc:creator>George</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 01 Apr 2010 20:56:47 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description>The reason for my question is that in my data I have many observable high dimensional covariates. I mean in the hundreds. I don&#039;t think throwing them all into the regression function is really feasible. It will be nice to find out more about the theoretical justification of using propensity scores. I am in the computer science field (phd student) and new to the work in econometrics but your book has been extremely helpful. Thank you very much.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>The reason for my question is that in my data I have many observable high dimensional covariates. I mean in the hundreds. I don&#8217;t think throwing them all into the regression function is really feasible. It will be nice to find out more about the theoretical justification of using propensity scores. I am in the computer science field (phd student) and new to the work in econometrics but your book has been extremely helpful. Thank you very much.</p>
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